Comments on: Who spoke to Moses from the burning bush? http://www.errancy.com/who-spoke-to-moses-from-the-burning-bush/ Does the Bible contain contradictions or errors? Biblical inerrancy examined. Wed, 07 Sep 2011 04:23:00 +0200 hourly 1 http://wordpress.org/?v=3.1 By: MJG196 http://www.errancy.com/who-spoke-to-moses-from-the-burning-bush/comment-page-1/#comment-645 MJG196 Mon, 13 Dec 2010 05:03:59 +0000 http://www.errancy.com/?p=1095#comment-645 G-d unquestionably spoke directly to Moses. The text is pretty straightforward. The Angel of the Lord may have appeared (and may have been either G-d or a manifestation of G-d), but the text clearly states it was G-d who spoke. G-d unquestionably spoke directly to Moses. The text is pretty straightforward. The Angel of the Lord may have appeared (and may have been either G-d or a manifestation of G-d), but the text clearly states it was G-d who spoke.

]]> By: WisdomLover http://www.errancy.com/who-spoke-to-moses-from-the-burning-bush/comment-page-1/#comment-403 WisdomLover Sat, 12 Sep 2009 02:04:54 +0000 http://www.errancy.com/?p=1095#comment-403 It's pretty typical in both Jewish and Christian traditions to view the phrase "the Angel of the LORD" (Malakh YHWH) as referring to the <em>theophanic angel</em>. Strong's gives this as one of the meanings of "malakh". In Jewish traditions this means that the Angel of the LORD is a special, temporary, manifestation of God Himself. In Christian traditions, we typically view the Angel of the LORD as Christ. Either way there is no conflict. The Angel of the LORD spoke to Moses, but that is just to say that God spoke to Moses. Stephen's remark may be a case of Stephen making yet another (accurately reported) mistake, or it could be that when Stephen said that God sent Moses "through the angel who appeared to him in the bush" he just meant that God sent Moses "through the manifestation of God that appeared to him in the bush." And that is not problematic. It’s pretty typical in both Jewish and Christian traditions to view the phrase “the Angel of the LORD” (Malakh YHWH) as referring to the theophanic angel. Strong’s gives this as one of the meanings of “malakh”. In Jewish traditions this means that the Angel of the LORD is a special, temporary, manifestation of God Himself. In Christian traditions, we typically view the Angel of the LORD as Christ. Either way there is no conflict. The Angel of the LORD spoke to Moses, but that is just to say that God spoke to Moses.

Stephen’s remark may be a case of Stephen making yet another (accurately reported) mistake, or it could be that when Stephen said that God sent Moses “through the angel who appeared to him in the bush” he just meant that God sent Moses “through the manifestation of God that appeared to him in the bush.” And that is not problematic.

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