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	<title>Comments on: When was Judas paid?</title>
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	<link>http://www.errancy.com/when-was-judas-paid/</link>
	<description>Does the Bible contain contradictions or errors? Biblical inerrancy examined.</description>
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		<title>By: WisdomLover</title>
		<link>http://www.errancy.com/when-was-judas-paid/comment-page-2/#comment-501</link>
		<dc:creator>WisdomLover</dc:creator>
		<pubDate>Mon, 21 Dec 2009 18:25:02 +0000</pubDate>
		<guid isPermaLink="false">http://www.errancy.com/?p=1091#comment-501</guid>
		<description>I neglected to mention that I was referring to the use of &quot;Shaqal&quot; in Zechariah 11.</description>
		<content:encoded><![CDATA[<p>I neglected to mention that I was referring to the use of &#8220;Shaqal&#8221; in Zechariah 11.</p>
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		<title>By: WisdomLover</title>
		<link>http://www.errancy.com/when-was-judas-paid/comment-page-1/#comment-500</link>
		<dc:creator>WisdomLover</dc:creator>
		<pubDate>Mon, 21 Dec 2009 18:23:48 +0000</pubDate>
		<guid isPermaLink="false">http://www.errancy.com/?p=1091#comment-500</guid>
		<description>BTW-In the LXX when the term &quot;Shaqal&quot; (weighed) is used, it is translated to Greek as &quot;Histemi&quot; (placed, set or established). As such, it probably does make sense to translate &quot;Histemi&quot; in Matthew 26 as &quot;weighed&quot;, even though it is not used in that way anywhere else in the NT.</description>
		<content:encoded><![CDATA[<p>BTW-In the LXX when the term &#8220;Shaqal&#8221; (weighed) is used, it is translated to Greek as &#8220;Histemi&#8221; (placed, set or established). As such, it probably does make sense to translate &#8220;Histemi&#8221; in Matthew 26 as &#8220;weighed&#8221;, even though it is not used in that way anywhere else in the NT.</p>
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		<title>By: Amtiskaw</title>
		<link>http://www.errancy.com/when-was-judas-paid/comment-page-1/#comment-485</link>
		<dc:creator>Amtiskaw</dc:creator>
		<pubDate>Sun, 13 Dec 2009 12:54:01 +0000</pubDate>
		<guid isPermaLink="false">http://www.errancy.com/?p=1091#comment-485</guid>
		<description>I hadn&#039;t considered Zech 11; thanks for pointing that out.</description>
		<content:encoded><![CDATA[<p>I hadn&#8217;t considered Zech 11; thanks for pointing that out.</p>
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		<title>By: WisdomLover</title>
		<link>http://www.errancy.com/when-was-judas-paid/comment-page-1/#comment-484</link>
		<dc:creator>WisdomLover</dc:creator>
		<pubDate>Sun, 13 Dec 2009 12:43:36 +0000</pubDate>
		<guid isPermaLink="false">http://www.errancy.com/?p=1091#comment-484</guid>
		<description>Oh! I see. Matthew is alluding to Zechariah 11. In that passage Zechariah is paid by having thirty pieces of silver weighed out to him. And he throws it to the potter in the house of the LORD.

The translators are being &#039;helpful&#039; by using histemi which means &quot;set&quot; or &quot;place&quot; or &quot;establish&quot; and translating it as &quot;place (in the balance)&quot; or &quot;weigh&quot;.

That gives your narrative symmetry argument more force. Still not enough that I&#039;m going to give it a high rating, but perhaps a higher rating than it would otherwise have gotten.</description>
		<content:encoded><![CDATA[<p>Oh! I see. Matthew is alluding to Zechariah 11. In that passage Zechariah is paid by having thirty pieces of silver weighed out to him. And he throws it to the potter in the house of the LORD.</p>
<p>The translators are being &#8216;helpful&#8217; by using histemi which means &#8220;set&#8221; or &#8220;place&#8221; or &#8220;establish&#8221; and translating it as &#8220;place (in the balance)&#8221; or &#8220;weigh&#8221;.</p>
<p>That gives your narrative symmetry argument more force. Still not enough that I&#8217;m going to give it a high rating, but perhaps a higher rating than it would otherwise have gotten.</p>
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		<title>By: WisdomLover</title>
		<link>http://www.errancy.com/when-was-judas-paid/comment-page-1/#comment-483</link>
		<dc:creator>WisdomLover</dc:creator>
		<pubDate>Sun, 13 Dec 2009 12:23:18 +0000</pubDate>
		<guid isPermaLink="false">http://www.errancy.com/?p=1091#comment-483</guid>
		<description>I &lt;em&gt;was&lt;/em&gt; misunderstanding your initial contention. It was not about timing, but about a form of narrative symmetry.

I don&#039;t really feel the force of it, but I get what you&#039;re saying now.

This word Histemi is translated as weighed out exactly once in the NT NASB: Matt. 26:15. Everywhere else it is translated as &quot;set&quot;, &quot;stand&quot; or &quot;establish&quot;. Obviously, the translators know what they&#039;re doing, but I can&#039;t help thinking that Matthew is only telling us that they fixed the price of the betrayal.

Perhaps part of it is that I find it difficult to believe that the priests would hand out that much money to someone on the promise that one day he might betray his friend.</description>
		<content:encoded><![CDATA[<p>I <em>was</em> misunderstanding your initial contention. It was not about timing, but about a form of narrative symmetry.</p>
<p>I don&#8217;t really feel the force of it, but I get what you&#8217;re saying now.</p>
<p>This word Histemi is translated as weighed out exactly once in the NT NASB: Matt. 26:15. Everywhere else it is translated as &#8220;set&#8221;, &#8220;stand&#8221; or &#8220;establish&#8221;. Obviously, the translators know what they&#8217;re doing, but I can&#8217;t help thinking that Matthew is only telling us that they fixed the price of the betrayal.</p>
<p>Perhaps part of it is that I find it difficult to believe that the priests would hand out that much money to someone on the promise that one day he might betray his friend.</p>
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		<title>By: Amtiskaw</title>
		<link>http://www.errancy.com/when-was-judas-paid/comment-page-1/#comment-480</link>
		<dc:creator>Amtiskaw</dc:creator>
		<pubDate>Sat, 12 Dec 2009 20:39:21 +0000</pubDate>
		<guid isPermaLink="false">http://www.errancy.com/?p=1091#comment-480</guid>
		<description>It&#039;s not that there wouldn&#039;t be time for Judas to betray Jesus, collect the money, then return it, but from the point of view of the narrative this would be clumsy at best.

Anyway, yes, the question is: is Matthew in fact describing an up-front payment?

I think he is: he mentions the priests weighing out the money, and later mentions Judas returning the money. He surely expects his readers to understand that the &quot;weighing out&quot; was the actual payment.</description>
		<content:encoded><![CDATA[<p>It&#8217;s not that there wouldn&#8217;t be time for Judas to betray Jesus, collect the money, then return it, but from the point of view of the narrative this would be clumsy at best.</p>
<p>Anyway, yes, the question is: is Matthew in fact describing an up-front payment?</p>
<p>I think he is: he mentions the priests weighing out the money, and later mentions Judas returning the money. He surely expects his readers to understand that the &#8220;weighing out&#8221; was the actual payment.</p>
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		<title>By: WisdomLover</title>
		<link>http://www.errancy.com/when-was-judas-paid/comment-page-1/#comment-479</link>
		<dc:creator>WisdomLover</dc:creator>
		<pubDate>Sat, 12 Dec 2009 20:33:43 +0000</pubDate>
		<guid isPermaLink="false">http://www.errancy.com/?p=1091#comment-479</guid>
		<description>You were arguing, weren&#039;t you, that Matthew describes an up front payment because he has Judas return the money. I inferred, though perhaps I was mistaken, that the reason you thought the up front payment in Matthew was necessary was because there would not be time for Judas to receive payment, regret his betrayal and then return the money.

I was arguing that even if he received payment only upon completion of his end of the bargain, there was still ample time, hours and perhaps days, for him to regret his betrayal and then return the money. So the proposed reason for Matthew to alter Mark does not exist.

Was there some other reason that you thought that Judas&#039;s returning the money required an up front payment?

Now all of this is relevant to the main topic, presumably, because if Matthew had a strong incentive to describe an up front payment, then that counts as some evidence for the claim that he really is describing an up front payment.

I was saying that I don&#039;t think Matthew does have a particularly strong reason to describe an up front payment. And, as I noted in my first post, he may well not have been describing an up front payment.</description>
		<content:encoded><![CDATA[<p>You were arguing, weren&#8217;t you, that Matthew describes an up front payment because he has Judas return the money. I inferred, though perhaps I was mistaken, that the reason you thought the up front payment in Matthew was necessary was because there would not be time for Judas to receive payment, regret his betrayal and then return the money.</p>
<p>I was arguing that even if he received payment only upon completion of his end of the bargain, there was still ample time, hours and perhaps days, for him to regret his betrayal and then return the money. So the proposed reason for Matthew to alter Mark does not exist.</p>
<p>Was there some other reason that you thought that Judas&#8217;s returning the money required an up front payment?</p>
<p>Now all of this is relevant to the main topic, presumably, because if Matthew had a strong incentive to describe an up front payment, then that counts as some evidence for the claim that he really is describing an up front payment.</p>
<p>I was saying that I don&#8217;t think Matthew does have a particularly strong reason to describe an up front payment. And, as I noted in my first post, he may well not have been describing an up front payment.</p>
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		<title>By: Amtiskaw</title>
		<link>http://www.errancy.com/when-was-judas-paid/comment-page-1/#comment-478</link>
		<dc:creator>Amtiskaw</dc:creator>
		<pubDate>Sat, 12 Dec 2009 18:38:25 +0000</pubDate>
		<guid isPermaLink="false">http://www.errancy.com/?p=1091#comment-478</guid>
		<description>I&#039;m not sure what you&#039;re driving at. Regardless of when or if Judas returned the money, Matthew found it convenient to alter Mark for the sake of a coherent narrative.</description>
		<content:encoded><![CDATA[<p>I&#8217;m not sure what you&#8217;re driving at. Regardless of when or if Judas returned the money, Matthew found it convenient to alter Mark for the sake of a coherent narrative.</p>
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		<title>By: WisdomLover</title>
		<link>http://www.errancy.com/when-was-judas-paid/comment-page-1/#comment-477</link>
		<dc:creator>WisdomLover</dc:creator>
		<pubDate>Sat, 12 Dec 2009 17:17:00 +0000</pubDate>
		<guid isPermaLink="false">http://www.errancy.com/?p=1091#comment-477</guid>
		<description>Did Judas return the silver, Amtiskaw?

Or did Matthew make that up? Do we have here an example of the truism that when you tell one lie, you&#039;ve got to tell a second to cover it.

Or are you claiming that he correctly reported the return of the silver and then inferred the up front payment?

These questions fall under the category of &quot;Just Curious&quot;. I&#039;m not sure that anything about inerrancy really turns on the answer. I suspect that errantist Christians, like Errancy, will be more sympathetic toward option 2. 

Either way, I don&#039;t think Matthew is quite in the narrative bind you think he is in here.

For starters, I don&#039;t think there&#039;s any requirement that Judas return the money on the night he betrayed Christ (or that Judas hang himself that night). There is at least one event that Matthew describes that I will guarantee you did not happen exactly in sequence where Matthew places the vignette of Judas&#039; return of the money: The purchase of the potter&#039;s field. The priests did not buy it with Judas&#039;s silver at the crack of dawn on the way from the temple to Pilate&#039;s court. That happened days or weeks later. So the events at the end of the story about Jesus&#039; betrayal by Judas, arrest and the trial in the temple take us well past the events a the beginning of the story of Jesus trial before Pilate and subsequent crucifixion.

Matthew notes, in any event, that Judas returned the money after Jesus was condemned. In context you might think he meant &quot;condemned by the priests&quot;, but it isn&#039;t clear, and he might have meant &quot;condemned by Pilate&quot;. He might even have meant that it happened sometime after Jesus had died.

No matter when Matthew intended to say that Judas returned the money, there was ample time for him to first receive it in payment. That would probably have happened in the garden, and at any rate, no latter than when Jesus was delivered to the priests...well before he was actually condemned by them.</description>
		<content:encoded><![CDATA[<p>Did Judas return the silver, Amtiskaw?</p>
<p>Or did Matthew make that up? Do we have here an example of the truism that when you tell one lie, you&#8217;ve got to tell a second to cover it.</p>
<p>Or are you claiming that he correctly reported the return of the silver and then inferred the up front payment?</p>
<p>These questions fall under the category of &#8220;Just Curious&#8221;. I&#8217;m not sure that anything about inerrancy really turns on the answer. I suspect that errantist Christians, like Errancy, will be more sympathetic toward option 2. </p>
<p>Either way, I don&#8217;t think Matthew is quite in the narrative bind you think he is in here.</p>
<p>For starters, I don&#8217;t think there&#8217;s any requirement that Judas return the money on the night he betrayed Christ (or that Judas hang himself that night). There is at least one event that Matthew describes that I will guarantee you did not happen exactly in sequence where Matthew places the vignette of Judas&#8217; return of the money: The purchase of the potter&#8217;s field. The priests did not buy it with Judas&#8217;s silver at the crack of dawn on the way from the temple to Pilate&#8217;s court. That happened days or weeks later. So the events at the end of the story about Jesus&#8217; betrayal by Judas, arrest and the trial in the temple take us well past the events a the beginning of the story of Jesus trial before Pilate and subsequent crucifixion.</p>
<p>Matthew notes, in any event, that Judas returned the money after Jesus was condemned. In context you might think he meant &#8220;condemned by the priests&#8221;, but it isn&#8217;t clear, and he might have meant &#8220;condemned by Pilate&#8221;. He might even have meant that it happened sometime after Jesus had died.</p>
<p>No matter when Matthew intended to say that Judas returned the money, there was ample time for him to first receive it in payment. That would probably have happened in the garden, and at any rate, no latter than when Jesus was delivered to the priests&#8230;well before he was actually condemned by them.</p>
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		<title>By: Amtiskaw</title>
		<link>http://www.errancy.com/when-was-judas-paid/comment-page-1/#comment-476</link>
		<dc:creator>Amtiskaw</dc:creator>
		<pubDate>Sat, 12 Dec 2009 12:58:57 +0000</pubDate>
		<guid isPermaLink="false">http://www.errancy.com/?p=1091#comment-476</guid>
		<description>In Matthew&#039;s gospel, Judas has to be given the money early, because in Matthew, and only in Matthew, Judas returns the money out of guilt (Matthew 27:3).

It seems likely to me that this is the whole cause of the discrepancy: Matthew wanted to report that Judas returned the silver, and therefore had to report that Judas was paid at once. Hence he altered the account in his source, Mark.</description>
		<content:encoded><![CDATA[<p>In Matthew&#8217;s gospel, Judas has to be given the money early, because in Matthew, and only in Matthew, Judas returns the money out of guilt (Matthew 27:3).</p>
<p>It seems likely to me that this is the whole cause of the discrepancy: Matthew wanted to report that Judas returned the silver, and therefore had to report that Judas was paid at once. Hence he altered the account in his source, Mark.</p>
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